Jesus’ Doctrine of Particular and Limited Atonement
It is common for Christians to believe that Jesus died for
all men without exception. From the time of Adam until the end of time, Christ
died for every single person bar none. Jesus died for people who were already in
hell like Pharaoh and Esau, bound for the lake of fire which is the second
death. Jesus also died for Judas Iscariot, becoming the Propitiation for his sins (1
John 2:2), yet he still goes to hell and is bound for the lake of fire to face
the wrath of God? (Watson's Biblical & Theological Dictionary: To
propitiate is to appease, to atone, to turn away the wrath of an offended
person. In the case before us, the wrath turned away is the wrath of God; the
person making the propitiation is Christ; the propitiating offering or
sacrifice is his blood).
Something seems strange.
It’s either Christ’s death fails to propitiate for the sins
of some, or there is a fatal flaw in their scriptural interpretation. I am sure
that it is the latter. God is loving, gracious and merciful to all men without
exception, said they, hence Christ must die for all without exception. It is
this misunderstanding of God’s love, grace and mercy that forms this
irrational, sentimental basis of universal atonement.
What is Jesus’ belief of His own atonement?
In John 10, Jesus is speaking to the Pharisees and Jews in parable of the sheep and the Shepherd. Jesus Christ is the door of the sheep (John 10:7). The sheep are those who believe, know God and are known of God (John 10:14), those who hear the voice of the Shepherd who is Jesus Christ Himself (John 10:4-5). We have established the identity of the sheep i.e. those who are believers and who will believe. And Jesus the good Shepherd gives His life for the sheep and atone for their sins (John 10:11,15).
“I am
the good shepherd: the good shepherd giveth his life for the sheep”. John 10:11
“But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you”. John 10:26
John 10:26 speaks of the identity of those who are not Jesus’ sheep. They are those (including the pharisees who are speaking with Jesus in John 10) who do not and will not believe until the end of their lives. Since Jesus has already established that He died for the sheep or the believers, and the unbelievers are not the sheep, therefore Jesus died only for the sheep and did not die for the non-sheep in whatsoever sense.
Therefore, John 10 Argument for limited or particular
atonement goes like this:
1.
Since Jesus died for the sheep (believers and
those who will believe),
2. And the unbelievers (those who do not and will
not believe until the end of their lives) are not the sheep,
3.
Therefore, Jesus died only for the sheep
Answer to a Refutation
At this point, a refutation on point 3 may arise: It’s true
that Jesus died for the sheep, and the unbelievers spoken of in John 10 are not
the sheep, but it does not mean that Jesus never died for the non-sheep. You
are assuming the conclusion or begging the question. Where did it say that Christ
died for the sheep ONLY? You have committed a negative inference fallacy.
Let us go to Jesus’ High Priestly prayer in John 17. It is a
conversation between God the Son and God the Father.
John 17:9,20 speaks of Jesus’ prayer and desire for the
sheep (brackets mine): “v.9 I pray for them (The
Apostles who are identified as sheep): I pray not
for the world (non-sheep), but for
them which thou hast given me (the Apostles who are identified as
sheep, given to Jesus by God the Father); for they
are thine…… v.20 Neither pray I for these
alone (the Apostles who are identified as sheep), but for them also which shall believe on me (only
the sheep will believe according to John 10) through
their word (the rest of the sheep from around the world)”. Since
Christ prays only for the sheep i.e. the people who have been given to Jesus by
God the Father, it is logical to say that Christ only desires for the salvation
of the sheep. That particular desire of Christ is consistent with the idea that
Christ died only for the sheep. Why would Christ die for some people who are
not the object of His saving desire?
John 17:10 speaks of Christ’s desire to be glorified by the
salvation of the sheep (brackets mine): “And all
mine (Christ’s sheep) are thine, and
thine (The Father’s Sheep) are mine; and
I am glorified in them (the sheep)”. It logically implies
that Jesus does not desire the salvation of the non-sheep since it is not His
intention to be glorified by the salvation of the non-sheep.
John 17:24 further speaks of Christ’s desire for the
sheep to be with Him that they may behold the glory of Christ (brackets mine): “Father, I will that they (the sheep) also, whom thou hast given me, be with me (Christ)
where I am; that they may behold my glory, which
thou hast given me: for thou lovedst me before the foundation of the world”.
Here, there is no mention at all of Jesus’ prayer and desire for the
non-sheep to be with Him for eternity. If Christ desires for the non-sheep’s salvation
and died for them, Jesus would indeed have prayed to God the Father for the
sure salvation of both the sheep and the non-sheep. Since Jesus never prayed for
the salvation of the non-sheep in John 17 which speaks of His desire, it is perfectly
logical to conclude that Jesus never died for the non-sheep.
The fact is that the non-sheep or the goats are going down to the path of destruction.
Matthew 25:32-33 And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth his sheep from the goats: And he shall set the sheep on his right hand, but the goats on the left.
Psa 92:7 When the wicked spring as the grass, and when all the workers of iniquity do flourish; it is that they shall be destroyed for ever:
Romans 9 speaks of God’s desire for the goats to be destroyed that God will be glorified in His justice, citing Pharaoh as the main example of that terrible decree of eternal unconditional reprobation. Rom 9:13 As it is written, Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated. Rom 9:14 What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? God forbid. Rom 9:15 For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. Rom 9:16 So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth mercy. Rom 9:17 For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth. Rom 9:18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth. Rom 9:19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will? Rom 9:20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus? Rom 9:21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour? Rom 9:22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction: Rom 9:23 And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory.
Why would Christ die for someone who is already the object of God’s destructive desire according to Romans 9? Christ cannot go against His own desire or decree by dying for them. He cannot contradict the efficacy of His own atonement. God cannot contradict Himself. Why would He die for those men who who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ (Jude 4)? Since God is omnipotent in His power including the efficacy of Christ's death to definitely (not potentially) save a person, and since what God desires is always fulfilled (Job 23:13 But he is in one mind, and who can turn him? and what his soul desireth, even that he doeth), therefore it breaks the law of logic (which God the Logos or the Logic has created) to think that Christ died for the goats or the wicked reprobates who can and will never be saved.
Let Paul continue to answer that refutation with his Romans 8. Rom 8:31 What shall we then say to these things? If God be for us, who can be against us? Rom 8:32 He that spared not his own Son, but delivered him up for us all, how shall he not with him also freely give us all things? Rom 8:33 Who shall lay any thing to the charge of God's elect? It is God that justifieth. Rom 8:34 Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died, yea rather, that is risen again, who is even at the right hand of God, who also maketh intercession for us. Rom 8:35 Who shall separate us from the love of Christ? shall tribulation, or distress, or persecution, or famine, or nakedness, or peril, or sword? Rom 8:36 As it is written, For thy sake we are killed all the day long; we are accounted as sheep for the slaughter. Rom 8:37 Nay, in all these things we are more than conquerors through him that loved us. Rom 8:38 For I am persuaded, that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor powers, nor things present, nor things to come, Rom 8:39 Nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, shall be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord.
Who are the ”us” and “we” spoken of in Romans 8:31,32,34,35,36,37,39? The context is indisputably clear. They are referring to God’s elect (Romans 8:33) who are also known as the sheep (Romans 8:36) who are also known as the believers (John 10:4). Therefore, Romans 8:32 says that God the Father spared not His own Son, but delivered Him (Its past tense shows the absolute certainty of the sheep’s salvation) up for us all (the sheep) so that nothing can ever go against us (Romans 8:31) and that nothing can ever separate us from God’s love (Romans 8:37-39). If God is for a person, a loving gracious favour expressed by Christ dying for someone, who can be against that person i.e. who or what can prevent Christ's atonement from actually saving that person (Romans 8:31)? It means that when Christ died for someone, that person will definitely be saved which is the highest expression that God is indeed for them. Christ's atonement is definite and actual, not potential. God seeks no permission to save someone.
Let’s imagine that the “us” in Romans 8:32 includes the non-sheep or the goats, it means that Christ also died for the goats. But lo and behold, despite Christ dying for the goats, hell still goes against them (Romans 8:31). The devil still lays something to the charge of the goats whom Christ has supposedly died and the goats are not justified at all (Romans 8:33). The goats whom Christ died is still condemned and Christ's intercession fails for them (Romans 8:34). Lo and behold, the goats whom Christ died are separated from the love of Christ (Romans 8:35). Oh no, the goats whom Christ died are less than conquerors now since hell has separated them from the love of God (Romans 8:37-39).
See the absurdity of universal atonement. It totally breaks the principle of definite atonement as already established by Romans 8:31.
Let's revisit John 10:26 and the next three verses.
Joh 10:26 But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you. Joh 10:27 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me: Joh 10:28 And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand. Joh 10:29 My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand. Out of these four verses, This is what I can logically gather regarding the non-sheep or the goats. The goats: 1) do not hear the Jesus' voice, 2) are not known of Jesus, 3) will not have eternal life, 4) will perish, 5) are never in Jesus' hand since those who are in His hand will never be plucked out, 6) are not given to Jesus by the Father, 7) are not in the Father's hand since those who are in His hand will never be plucked out.
The seven points above are perfectly consistent with the idea that Jesus died only for the sheep. How can anyone still attempt to make sense universal atonement out of John 10:26-29? If Jesus died for the goats, and the seven points above still happen, wouldn't that would make Christ's death redundant and useless for the goats? It's absurd to think that Jesus died for the goats and yet they are still not in Jesus' and the Father's hands, or are plucked out of their hands. This goes against Jesus' teaching from John 10:26-29.
The 7 points extracted above are logically consistent with the idea that Jesus never died for the goats, in view of God's omnipotence, the perfect efficacy of Christ's death and the eternal preservation of the saints.
1.
Since Jesus died for the sheep (believers and
those who will believe),
2. And the unbelievers (those who do not and will
not believe until the end of their lives) are not the sheep,
3.
Therefore, Jesus died only for the sheep
Many more things can be said from the Scripture, but this is sufficient to prove point 3. There is no negative inference fallacy because there are other parts of the Bible that supports the conclusion of point 3. Negative inference fallacy can only occur when there is nothing to prove or support a conclusion.
There is no explicit statement of: Christ died ONLY for the elect. But the ideas of limited atonement are everywhere in the Scripture. It's like the statement "We are saved by Grace ALONE, through Faith ALONE" is not explicitly stated, but the idea is pervasive throughout the whole Scripture. Likewise for the Trinity.
What Does it mean to be a Sheep?
How can one be a sheep? What is the basis of one being a
sheep or the elect? Many would say that man’s free will must freely accept Christ
first into their lives in order for the benefits of Christ’ death and
propitiation to be applied to them, and then one can be the sheep or elect. In
other words, God foresaw in eternity what man’s free will would choose. Based
on that free will choice of man, God brands them as the sheep or elect.
But Romans 9 has
established that believing has nothing to do with free will. Rom 9:15
For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will
have compassion on whom I will have compassion. Rom 9:16 So then it is
not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of God that sheweth
mercy. The basis of one being a sheep, then, is God’s unconditional
grace (apart from man’s work and free will) that causes man to willingly choose
to believe in Christ. Man’s work and free will cannot make one to be a sheep.
Only God can make someone to be a sheep. The evidence of one being a sheep is true
faith in Christ, a sincere assent to understood revealed propositions of God. The
basis of that willing choice of the sheep or elect to believe in Christ is not
free will or a will free from God’s control, but God who worketh in man both to
will and to do his good pleasure (Philippians 2:13) who also sovereignly causes
man to work out his salvation with fear and trembling (Philippians 2:12).
Apostle Paul teaches us that the sheep can believe because
God has unconditionally predestined them to eternal life. Eph 1:3
Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us
with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ: Eph
1:4 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the
world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in
love: Eph 1:5 Having predestinated us unto the adoption of
children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, Eph
1:6 To the praise of the glory of his grace, wherein he hath made us
accepted in the beloved.
The eternal predestination of God is the ultimate cause and basis
for the salvation of the sheep and the damnation of the goats. The death of
Christ and its benefits application to the sheep is the means to fulfill what
has been decreed regarding the salvation of the elect.
Conclusion
These sheep are they whom God loves before the foundation of
the world. There was never a moment that God does not love them. The sheep can
believe and love God because God loves them first (1 John 4:19). It is
logically necessary to imply that those who do not believe and do not love God
until the end of their lives (the non-sheep or the goats) are never loved by
God in the first place.
Any non-saving common love, grace and mercy of God that
still desires for the salvation of the goats, if it exists at all, would be
redundant and insulting the absolute sovereignty of God and the absolute
efficacy of His atonement. Rather, the goats are only stamped with God’s wrath
as confirmed by Psalm 92:7 – “when the wicked spring as the grass, and when
all the workers of iniquity do flourish; it is that they shall be destroyed for
ever.” The good gifts that God gives to them such health and wealth is
nothing but a slippery slope that leads them to destruction (Psalm 73:18).
Summary: The intention and extent of Jesus’ death is only
for the sheep alone. Though Jesus’ death has sufficient power to save all men
without exception (hypothetically speaking of universal salvation; sufficient
for all), but God only intends to apply the benefits of Christ’s death to the
elect alone (intention and extent; efficacious only for the elect). Hence, the
atonement is limited and particular to the elect alone. Non-hypothetically speaking,
Christ’s death is sufficient and efficient only for the elect. In short, Christ
died only for the elect.
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